Immunology 328-001

Sample Exam 1

1.  Which of the following represents an important anatomic barrier to infection by microorganisims?

a) lymphocytes          
b)  interferons 
c) mucous membranes
d) kinin system

2.  Which of the following is NOT an example of an innate immune mechanisms?

a) interferons 
b) complement 
c) phagocytes 
d) T cell receptors

3.  Which of the following classes of MHC proteins are produced only by antigen presenting cells?

a)   Class I 
b) Class II 
c) Class III 
d) Class II & Class III

4.  All of the following would be classified as cytokines, except:

a) interleukins 
b) kinins 
c) tumor necrosis factors 
d) interferons

5.  TcRs are present in the cell membrane of:

a) all mature null cells  
b) all mature lymphocytes 
c) all mature T lymphocytes
d) all mature monocytes

6.  The specific portion of an antigen that is recognized by an antibody or TcR is termed:

a) the agretope 
b) the MHC 
c) the epitope 
d) the CD

7.  A group of serum proteins that participates in an enzymatic cascade which ultimately results in cell lysis:

a) complement system       
b) fibrinolytic system  
c) kinin system
d) clotting system

8.  A hydrolytic enzyme found within mucous secretions which has the ability to degrade the peptidoglycan cell wall of gram + bacteria:

a) interferon 
b) histamine 
c) complement 
d) lysozyme

9.  The uptake of particulate material by a cell is termed:

a) phagocytosis    
b) pinocytosis  
c) apoptosis    
d) receptor-mediated endocytosis

10.  Which of the following cells do NOT function as APCs?

a) B lymphocytes   
b) macrophages    
c) neutrophils    
d) interdigitating dendritic cells

11.  In an inflammatory response, which of the following physiological events occurs first:

a) influx of phagocytic cells to the site of injury or infection
b) increased capillary permeability leading to edema
c) constriction of the blood vessels carrying blood away from the site of injury or infection
d) vasodilation of the capillary network leading to the site of injury or infection

12.  C reactive protein is classified as:

a) a cytokine    
b) a chemokine    
c) an acute-phase protein   
d) a kinin

13.  Fibrin is produced during:

a) the kinin cascade      
b) the clotting cascade
 c) the complement cascade  
d) the fibrinolytic cascade

14.  The kinin cascade, clotting cascade, and fibrinolytic cascade are all activated by a substance known as:

a) plasmin 
b) bradykinin   
c) prostaglandin 
d) Hageman Factor

15.  Prostaglandins and leukotrienes are classifed as:

a) lipid inflammatory mediators   
b) kinins   
c) acute phase proteins    
d) chemokines

16.  The most abundant leucocyte in the blood of normal humans is the:

a)  monocyte 
b)  neutrophil 
c)  eosinophil 
d)  lymphocyte

17.  What is an opsonin?

a)  a chemotactic factor                                    
b)  a substance that enhances phagocytosis   
c)  a cytokine   
d)  a hydrolytic enzyme

18.  Which of the following cell types are known to have Fc receptors on their surface?

a) follicular dendritic cells
b) macrophages 
c) basophils 
d) all of the above

19.  The functional equivalent to the Bursa of Fabricius in humans is:

a) the spleen 
b) the thymus 
c) the bone marrow 
d) the appendix

20.  The thymus is considered to be:

a)  a primary lymphoid organ     
b)  a secondary lymphoid organ 
c)  a reticuloendothelial organ
d)  a specialized lymph node

21.  In which area of the lymph node are considered to be “T cell rich”?

a)  primary follicles   
b)  medulla     
c)  paracortex    
d)  germinal centers

22. CD8 is a glycoprotein found on:

a)  all lymphocytes     
b)  B cells  
c)  cytotoxic T cells      
d)  helper T cells

23.  In addition to T cells and B cells, there is a third category of cells in the lymphocyte lineage known as:

a)  monocytes 
b)  null cells 
c)  granulocytes 
d)  megakaryocytes

24. Antibody-secreting cells are called:

a)  plasma cells 
b)  T cell blasts 
c)  macrophages
d) B lymphoblasts

25. Anti-viral proteins produced by virally infected cells are termed:

a)  complement    
b)  lysozyme  
c)  interferon      
d)  major basic proteins

26.  Which of the following is correctly  matched?
a)  dolor - redness       
b)  rubor - swelling 
c)  calor - heat     
d)  tumor - pain

27. Which of the following are known to stimulate pain receptors in the skin during an inflammatory response?

a)  mannose binding protein      
b)  bradykinin
c)  complement
d)  histamine

28. Phagocytosis, endocytosis and inflammation are all examples of:

a)  innate immunity              
b)  the anamnestic response
c)  acquired specific immunity  
d)  none of the above

29.  T lymphocytes undergo the process of negative selection in which of the following lymphoid organs?

a)  bone marrow       
b)  thymus
c) lymph nodes
d)  spleen

30. When monocytes complete their period of circulation in the blood and enter the tissues they become:

a)  natural killer cells  
b)  macrophages 
c)  mast cells        
d)  polymorphonuclear cells

31. Macrophages activated with lipopolysaccharide and IFN-g express are known to produce high levels of:
a)  IL-2
b)  nitric oxide
c)  hydrogen peroxide
d)  complement proteins

32. The superoxide anion (O2)  leads to the formation of all of the following except:

a)  hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)     
b)  hydroxyl radicals (OH’)
c)  nitric oxide (NO)          
d) singlet oxygen

33.  Cysteine-rich cationic peptides which circularize and form ion-permeable channels in bacterial and mammalian cell membranes are termed:

a)  cytokines   
b)  defensins 
c)  kinins   
d)  histamines

34. Which of the following cell types are not in the myeloid pathway of cellular differentiation?

a) megakaryocytes
b)  lymphocytes    
c)  macrophages    
d) basophils

35.  The hematopoietic growth factor which is believed to act at the level of the pluripotent stem cell is:

a)  IL-3 
b)  IL-4 
c)  IL-5 
d)  IL-6

36.  Which of the following would not be considered a secondary lymphoid organ?

a)  lymph nodes    
b)  spleen    
c)  thymus  
d)  tonsils

37.  In humans, the thymus is at its largest actual size:

a)  at birth    
b)  at puberty 
c)  in the mid-20s      
d)  in elderly individuals

38. Which of the following T cells would survive the process of negative selection?

a)  those bearing a TcR specific for self MHC + self antigen
b)  those bearing a TcR specific for foreign MHC + foreign antigen
c)  those bearing a TcR specific for self MHC + foreign antigen
d)  those bearing a TcR specific for foreign MHC + self antigen

45. Mature T cells are found in which of the following regions of the thymus?

a)  subcapsular region 
b)  cortex
c)  medulla 
d)  Hassal’s corpuscles

46.  Which of the following statements is true?

a)  95% of the progenitor T cells which enter the thymus leave as mature T cells
b) 50% of the progenitor T cells which enter the thymus leave as mature T cells
c) 1-5% of the progenitor T cells which enter the thymus leave as mature T cells
d) 10% of the progenitor T cells which enter the thymus leave as mature T cells

47.  In humans, B cells undergo a process of negative selection in:

a)  the bone marrow            
b)  the spleen 
c)  the thymus
d)  the lymph nodes

48.  The red pulp of the spleen is populated primarily by:

a)  macrophages and lymphocytes    
b)  erythrocytes and macrophages
c)  erythrocytes and lymphocytes     
d)  plasma cells

49. The T cell region of the spleen is known as:

a)  the primary follicles     
b)  the marginal zone 
c) the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath
d)  the subcapsular region

50.  The specific part of an antigen that combines with a specific antibody or T cell receptor is the

a)  epitope       
b)  agretope       
c)  allotope       
d)  paratope

51.  Differentiation of myeloid cells from committed progenitors to mature cells occurs primarily in:

a)  bone marrow    
b)  thymus   
c)  spleen   
d)  lymph nodes
 
Short Answer Questions (point values as indicated)

52.  In the space below, list four of the lymphoid regions which make up  the mammalian mucosal immune system.  (2pts)

53.  Macrophages play a variety of crucial roles in the immune response.   List three of these important roles in the space below.  (3pts)
 

Matching (there may be more than one correct answer per question) 1pt each

 

 


A)  Neutrophils 

B)  Lymphocytes 

C)  Monocytes 

D)  Macrophages

E)  Eosinophils

F)  Basophils

G)  Megakaryocytes               

H)  Mast Cells

I)    Dendritic Cells

J)    Natural Killer Cells

 

54.__________ These cells are also known as polymorphonuclear cells.

55.__________  These cells are the first to arrive at a site of inflammation.

56.__________  These cells are able to kill tumor cells by direct membrane contact.

57.__________  These giant cells are polyploid.

58.__________  Platelets are derived from these cells.

59.__________ These cells play a major role in the allergic response by releasing cytoplasmic granules.

60.__________ These cells are phagocytic.

61.__________  The major role of these cells is to combat parasitic worm infections.

62.__________  These cells possess cytoplasmic granules which stain with acidic dyes.

63.__________  These cells are directly responsible for the specific immune response.
 

Essay Questions (4pts each)
In the space below, speculate on the possible consequences of a genetic disorder which prevents the formation of mature neutrophils.  Please be as specific as possible in your answer.
 
 
 
 
 
 

In the space provided, explain the role of the M cell in the mucosal immune system.  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
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